If that were the case, then Would be of virgin birth! I had no idea🙂

]]>However, the surname shows that the roots are not there, but no one is able to say where the family came from. Some older people pretend they have heard from the elderlies that the origins are in today’s Czech Republic, the others believe that it was even further in the north, in Poland, but there is no one document confirming this..

In both countries there are still families with the same surname. Genealogic research shows that their ancestors have been there from the very beginning of 18th, some even in the 17th century. Having in mind the size of forced migrations in Europe in these period (wars, ecomic reasons, administrative decisions etc) no one can exclude the possibility that the parts of these families have been obliged to move towards the south, some of them staying in actual Czech Republic, and that the others continued till the Adriatic Sea.

The question is: can the genetic analysis (the paternal line) show the potential „family“ links between the people with same surname still living in these 3 countries? The separation (if any) took place most probably in the mid of 17th century – it means before about 8 to 9 generations…

Best regards,

Vladimir

]]>So your calculation is along the right lines but I think it isn’t quite right. This is because the 8.8 x 10^(-16) include the probability of failing to recombine AND transmitting a particular grandparental chromosome (a factor of 1/2 for each chromosome). So removing this, the probability of failing to recombine is 8.8 x 10^(-16)/(0.5^22)= 3.698 x10^(-9). Taking the 22 root of this (22 autosomes) gives 42% as the (geometric) mean probability of no recombination. The data underlying this is on Page 17 of this supplement (link: http://journals.plos.org/plosgenetics/article?id=10.1371/journal.pgen.1000658#pgen.1000658.s001). You can divide the zero count by the sum of each row.

Thanks for you comment! ]]>

The histograms in figure 2 are hard to follow, since I don’t know what units are used for “amount transmitted”. I would naively expect the “amount transmitted” value to range from 0 (none) to 1 (all), where the 0 and 1 values mean no crossover, while values in between indicate the position of the crossover. The units you use are what? Number of base pairs?

From your data, “the probability that a male transmits every chromosome without recombination is 8.8 x 10^(-16)”, I assume I can take the 23rd root of this number, and calculate that the average probability of a chromosome being transmitted with no crossover is 22%, and thus the crossover probability of a single chromosome, on the average is 88% (for a male, and 89.5% in a female) ]]>

Looking at the graphs for 2 generations back and 4 generations back, the distributions seem to be centered on 0.5 and 0.125, respectfully. That would correspond to the distributions being centered on 1/(2^(k-1)) if I assume that “k” is the number of generations back.

Am I mistaken in how I am interpreting these graphs?

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